Polity MCQ's

January 2026

With respect to the Constitutional and Statutory interplay in Elections, consider the following statements:

While Article 324 grants the Election Commission superintendence over elections, Article 327 empowers Parliament to enact laws governing the preparation of electoral rolls.
The constitutional requirement of citizenship for voting under Article 326 allows the Election Commission to independently assess the citizenship status of a voter during the revision of rolls.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

With respect to the SEED Scheme (Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs), consider the following statements:

The scheme operates under the aegis of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
The 'Healthcare Security' pillar of the scheme extends health insurance coverage through the National Health Authority’s PMJAY (Ayushman Bharat).
It includes a component for free coaching for Civil Services and professional courses like medicine and engineering.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

With respect to the operational timeline and legal framework of the Census, consider the following statements:

The Census is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948.
The reference date for population enumeration is uniformly March 1, 2027, for the entire country including hilly regions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

Consider the following pairs regarding scientific tests used in criminal investigations:

	Test	Key Characteristic/Substance
1.	Narco Analysis	Uses Sodium Pentothal to induce a hypnotic state.
2.	Polygraph Test	Measures physiological variables like blood pressure and pulse.
3.	Brain Mapping	Direct injection of barbiturates to map neural responses.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

The term ‘INAS 335 (Ospreys)’, recently mentioned in the news, is related to which of the following?

A new indigenous artillery gun system

A squadron of multi-role helicopters

A heavy-weight anti-submarine torpedo

A nuclear-powered attack submarine

None

With respect to the scope and jurisdiction of PILs, consider the following statements:

A PIL can be filed against a private entity alone without making the State a party to the case.
In cases of bonded labor, the Supreme Court has placed the burden of proof on the respondent to prove that forced labor is not bonded labor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

With respect to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005, consider the following statements:

If the government fails to provide employment within 15 days of receipt of the application, the applicant is entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.
Section 17 of the Act mandates the Social Audit of all works executed under the scheme.
The National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) App is mandatory for capturing real-time attendance at worksites.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

With respect to the observance of Constitution Day, consider the following statements:

The Government of India officially designated November 26 as Constitution Day in 2015 to commemorate the 125th birth anniversary year of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Prior to 2015, November 26 was observed informally as National Law Day by the legal fraternity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

With respect to the jurisdiction over Court Martial sentences, consider the following statements:

The President can grant pardons for punishments awarded by a Military Court.
The Governor of a State possesses concurrent power to pardon sentences given by a Court Martial.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

10.

With reference to the 'Competition Commission of India (CCI)', which of the following statements is/are correct?

It is a constitutional body established to replace the MRTP Act.
It has the power to penalize companies based on their global turnover rather than just relevant turnover.
Appeals against its orders are heard by the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).

Select the correct answer:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

11.

With reference to the appointment of Ad Hoc judges in the Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

The Chief Justice of India can appoint a retired judge of the Supreme Court as an ad hoc judge.
For the appointment of an ad hoc judge in the Supreme Court, the previous consent of the President of India is mandatory.
Ad hoc judges in High Courts are appointed under Article 224A of the Indian Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

12.

With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST), consider the following statements:

I. It was established as a separate body by the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act.
II. The conditions of service and tenure of the members are determined by the President.

III. The Commission has the power to regulate its own procedure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I and II only

II and III only

III only

I, II and III

None

13.

Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Protection Act, 2019:

It establishes a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) with the power to recall unsafe goods suo-moto.
Under the Act, a consumer can file a complaint at a commission where he/she resides.
Healthcare is explicitly excluded from the definition of "services" under the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

None

14.

With reference to the Enforcement Directorate (ED), consider the following statements:

ED can attach and confiscate properties obtained from proceeds of crime under FEOA and PMLA.
ED is empowered to sponsor preventive detention under COFEPOSA (1974).
Supreme Court has held that ED officials are equivalent to police officers for making arrests under PMLA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

15.

With reference to the Quality Council of India (QCI), consider the following statements:

QCI is a non-profit autonomous organization set up under a Public-Private Partnership between the Government of India and premier industry associations.
QCI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of industry representatives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3 only

2 and 3 only

None

16.

Consider the following statements about the differences between Electoral Bonds and Electoral Trusts in India:

Electoral Bonds maintain donor anonymity, whereas electoral trusts require public disclosure of donor identities.
Both Electoral Bonds and Electoral Trusts are eligible for tax deductions under Section 80GGC.
Electoral Bonds are regulated under the Companies Act, while Electoral Trusts are regulated by RBI and SBI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

17.

With respect to the functions of the bodies within 'Seva Teerth', consider the following statements:

The National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) serves as the apex body for political, economic, energy, and security issues of strategic concern.
The renaming of 'Rajpath' to 'Kartavya Path' was done to symbolize the path of imperial authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

18.

With respect to the UMEED Portal and the registration deadline, consider the following statements:

The UMEED portal serves as a centralized digital repository for Waqf assets, replacing the earlier WAMSI portal.
The Ministry of Minority Affairs has administratively extended the mandatory registration deadline by six months due to low compliance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

19.

With respect to the jurisdiction and powers of the Lokpal, consider the following statements:

The Lokpal has the power to initiate a suo motu inquiry against public servants if there is prima facie evidence of corruption.
The jurisdiction of the Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, except in matters relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

20.

With respect to the types of rights and recent updates regarding the FRA, consider the following statements:

Title rights under the Act grant ownership of land being cultivated up to a maximum of 10 hectares.
Bamboo is classified as 'Minor Forest Produce' (MFP) under the Act, giving forest dwellers the right to its ownership and sale.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

21.

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner:

The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners hold office for a fixed term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

Name

Phone

Time's up

April 2026

With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?

I. The MPLAD Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme (introduced in 1993), fully funded by the Government of India.
II. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.

III. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
IV. MPLADS scheme is supervised and implemented by the Ministry of Rural development.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

I, II and III

II and IV

I and III

II, III and IV

None

Consider the following statements:

The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a Governor for two or more States.
The Governor enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings for personal acts during their term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

Consider the following statements regarding the regulation of social media for minors in India:

Karnataka is the first Indian state to propose a social media ban for children under 16 years in its official budget.
Under the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, a child is defined as any individual who has not completed 16 years of age.
The power to regulate "Information Technology and Intermediaries" lies exclusively with the State Governments under the Seventh Schedule.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Consider the following statements regarding the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025:

I. The Act seeks to replace the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 and increases the guaranteed days of employment from 100 to 125 days per rural household annually.
II. Under the Act, the entire cost of wages for unskilled labour will be borne exclusively by the Central Government.

III. The scheme will operate as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a 60:40 Centre–State funding pattern for most states and 90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states.
IV. Gram Sabhasplay a strengthened role in conducting social audits and ensuring transparency through access to all records.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

I, III and IV only

I and II only

II, III and IV only

I, II, III and IV

None

Consider the following statements regarding the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016:

The Act increased the number of recognized disabilities from 7 to 21 and empowers the State Governments to add more categories as per regional requirements.
It mandates a 5% reservation in government jobs and a 4% reservation in higher educational institutions for persons with benchmark disabilities.
Every child with a benchmark disability has a statutory right to free education until the age of 18 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) 2.0 and its recent updates:

The mission has been extended to December 2028 with a primary focus on shifting from infrastructure creation to verified service delivery.
The funding pattern for Himalayan and North-Eastern states under the mission is 100% centrally funded.
It mandates that at least 50% of the members of the Village Water and Sanitation Committee (Pani Samiti) must be women.
The mission targets a supply of 55 litres per capita per day (lpcd) of potable water to every rural household.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

None

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

A resolution for the removal of the Speaker requires a majority of the total membership of the House, including vacancies.
While a resolution for their removal is under consideration, the Speaker can vote in the first instance but cannot exercise a casting vote.
The Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case held that the Speaker’s decision under the Tenth Schedule is final and exempt from judicial review to maintain parliamentary autonomy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

None

With reference to the 'Right to Die with Dignity' in India, consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court has recognized the Right to Die with Dignity as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Active euthanasia, involving the administration of lethal substances to end a terminal patient's life, is legally permitted under the Common Cause (2018) guidelines.
A Living Will must be countersigned by a Judicial Magistrate of First Class to be considered legally valid in India.
According to recent 2026 judicial directions, Clinically Assisted Nutrition and Hydration (CANH) is considered a form of medical treatment that can be withdrawn.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

None

With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

The Act applies to both digital personal data and non-digital data that remains in physical paper-based records.
Under the Act, a Data Principal has the right to nominate any individual to exercise their data rights in the event of their death or incapacity.
The Data Protection Board of India is empowered to provide compensation to individuals whose data privacy has been violated by a Data Fiduciary.
The Act removes the "public interest" override previously available under the RTI Act for disclosing personal information of public officials.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

None

10.

With reference to Civilian Awards in India, consider the following statements:

The recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made by a committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
According to the Supreme Court, these awards are not considered 'titles' under Article 18, provided they are not used as a prefix or suffix.
A person can be awarded a higher category of Padma Award only after a gap of at least five years from the earlier award.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

None

11.

With reference to the 'Guillotine' procedure in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

It is a procedural exercise that can be invoked in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha during the Budget Session.
It is applied only to those Demands for Grants that have been discussed but not yet voted upon.
It is a form of closure motion intended to ensure the timely passage of the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

None

12.

With reference to the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) in India, consider the following statements:

A JPC is a permanent body of the Parliament whose members are nominated by the President of India.
The strength of the committee is fixed at 31 members by the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha.
The recommendations of a JPC are binding on the government if the report is passed by a simple majority in both Houses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

Neither 1, 2 nor 3

None

13.

Which of the following are prohibited from receiving foreign contributions under FCRA?

Election candidates
Members of Legislature
Judges
Government servants

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

None

Name

Phone

Time's up

May 2026

With reference to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, consider the following statements:

The Bill mandates a 10% annual increase in the minimum amount of fines and penalties across all amended Acts.
It introduces a mechanism where Adjudicating Officers, instead of traditional courts, will determine penalties for certain minor offences.
The Bill proposes to decriminalize provisions in over 70 Central Acts to promote trust-based governance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

None

With reference to the recent notification regarding NCERT, consider the following statements:

NCERT has been granted the status of a “deemed-to-be-university”.
It can now award undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral degrees.
It is now completely independent of UGC regulations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

1, 2, and 3

None

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding CAPFs in India?

CAPFs operate under the Ministry of Defence.
CAPFs include both border guarding and internal security forces.
Assam Rifles guards the Indo-Myanmar border.

Select the correct answer:

2 and 3 only

1 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2, and 3

None

Consider the following statements regarding the Pardoning Power of the Governor in India:

Statement-I: The Governor of a State has the power to pardon a death sentence if the offence is against a law to which the executive power of the State extends.

Statement-II: The Madras High Court recently ruled that the Governor is bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers while exercising powers under Article 161.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

None

With reference to the safeguards against custodial violence in India, consider the following statements:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), a judicial inquiry is mandatory in every case of death in police custody.
India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention Against Torture (UNCAT) and has ratified it to implement its provisions into domestic law.
The D.K. Basu guidelines mandate that an arrestee must be medically examined by a doctor every 24 hours during their detention.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

With reference to the ‘PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana’, consider the following statements:

The scheme provides a 100% subsidy for households installing rooftop solar systems up to 3 kW.
REC Limited has been designated as the National Programme Implementation Agency (NPIA) for the scheme.
Under the Utility-Led Aggregation (ULA) model, the ownership of the solar asset remains with the private developer for the entire life of the project.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Vote in India:

The Right to Vote is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution of India.
The reduction of the voting age from 21 to 18 years was implemented through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, persons under preventive detention are allowed to cast their vote.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Consider the following statements regarding the office of the 'Whip' in India:

The office of the Whip is established under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
A Member of Parliament who violates a three-line whip is automatically disqualified by the President of India.
Whips cannot be issued to direct the voting behavior of legislators during the election for the President of India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

With reference to the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, consider the following statements:

The Bill proposes to increase the total strength of the Lok Sabha to 850 members.
It mandates that the new delimitation exercise must strictly use the 2027 Census data for seat reallocation.
The Bill amends Article 334A to expedite the implementation of women's reservation in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

None

10.

With reference to the Constitution (Amendment) Bill, consider the following statements:

The prior recommendation of the President of India is required for the introduction of a Constitution Amendment Bill in the Parliament.
In case of a disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is a provision for a joint sitting to resolve the deadlock.
The President of India is bound to give his assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill and cannot return it for reconsideration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2, and 3

None

11.

With reference to the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB), consider the following statements:

It is a statutory body tasked with regulating both the production of crude oil and the distribution of natural gas in India.
The Board possesses the powers of a Civil Court and can adjudicate disputes between entities in the petroleum sector.
Appeals against the decisions of the PNGRB are heard by the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2, and 3

None

12.

With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

The Constitution mandates that the Delimitation Commission must use the data from the most recent Census completed before the date of the Commission's appointment.
The President of India determines the final boundaries of constituencies after reviewing the recommendations of the Delimitation Commission.
The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act makes the implementation of women's reservation contingent upon the delimitation exercise conducted after the first census taken after the Act's commencement.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

13.

With reference to the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) notified in 2026, consider the following statements:

It is an independent statutory body established under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Registration with the OGAI is mandatory for all online social games and e-sports operating in India.
The OGAI has the power to coordinate with financial institutions to block funds related to prohibited online money games.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

14.

Consider the following statements:

I. The Seonath River is the largest tributary of the Mahanadi River.
II. The Ib River originates in the state of Chhattisgarh.

III. The Tel River is a right bank tributary of the Mahanadi River.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

I and II only

II and III only

I and III only

I, II and III

None

15.

With reference to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

Statement I: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat.

Statement II: The law specifies that the Presiding Officer must decide on a disqualification petition within a period of six months from the date of its filing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

None

Name

Phone

Time's up

June 2026

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework of Road Safety in India:

The Supreme Court has recognized the "Right to Safe Passage" on roads as a fundamental right derived from Article 21 of the Constitution.
In India, National Highways account for the majority of the total road length but a minority of road accident fatalities.
The "Golden Hour" refers to the time period during which a person injured in a road accident can be treated without being penalized for a lack of documentation under the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

None

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Act, 2026:

Statement-I: The Act mandates that 100% of the posts at the level of Special Director General (SDG) and Director General (DG) in the CAPFs shall be occupied by officers from the Indian Police Service (IPS).

Statement-II: The Act was introduced to fulfill a 2025 Supreme Court directive which called for the permanent reservation of top leadership posts for deputed IPS officers to ensure operational synergy with state police.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

None

With reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:

The registration of the birth of a minor child born outside India now requires a declaration that the child does not hold a passport from any other country.
The rules allow for the issuance of an electronic OCI (e-OCI) as a substitute for or supplement to physical cards.
Consent for the use of biometric data for the Fast Track Immigration (FTI) Programme is now a mandatory part of the OCI application process.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

With reference to the Census of India, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Census in India is conducted under the legal framework of the Census Act, 1948, and the data collected is protected by a confidentiality clause.

Statement II: Census 2027 is the first exercise since independence where caste-wise enumeration will be conducted for all communities beyond Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

None

With reference to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, and recent judicial developments, consider the following statements:

The Act recognizes acid attack victims as a category of disability, originally focusing on those disfigured by the throwing of acid.
The Supreme Court recently used Article 142 to include victims of forced acid ingestion within the Act's benefits, effective only from the date of the judgment.
The Act mandates a 5% reservation for persons with benchmark disabilities in government jobs and 4% in higher educational institutions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

With reference to Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India, consider the following statements:

PIL allows any public-spirited individual to approach the court on behalf of others.
PIL can only be filed in the Supreme Court under Article 32.
Courts can take suo motu cognizance of matters under PIL.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India:

Statement I: The Parliament has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court by enacting a law.

Statement II: The Constitution of India mandates that only a person who has served as a judge of a High Court for at least ten years is eligible for appointment as a Supreme Court judge.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

None

With reference to Article 164 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Governor has the constitutional authority to dismiss a Chief Minister at any time, as the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.

Statement II: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

None

Consider the following statements regarding the tenure and removal of the Chief Minister in India:

Under Article 172 of the Constitution, the normal duration of a State Legislative Assembly is five years unless sooner dissolved.
A Chief Minister automatically ceases to hold office upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly.
The Governor can remove a Chief Minister even if the latter enjoys majority support in the Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023:

The Selection Committee for the appointment of CEC and ECs includes the Chief Justice of India as a permanent member.
The salary of the Chief Election Commissioner is now equivalent to that of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
A Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary is responsible for suggesting a panel of names to the Selection Committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

11.

With reference to the recently launched Annual Health Check-up initiative and the Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) scheme, consider the following statements:

The free annual health check-up is mandatory for all workers across all age groups in India.
The ESI scheme is a self-financing health insurance scheme where both employers and employees contribute.
The Code on Social Security, 2020, for the first time, provides for the inclusion of gig and platform workers under social security benefits.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

12.

With reference to a ‘Hung Assembly’ in the Indian parliamentary system, consider the following statements:

The term ‘Hung Assembly’ is explicitly defined under Article 164 of the Constitution of India.
According to the S.R. Bommai case, the Governor’s assessment of a party's majority is final and cannot be challenged in a court of law.
The Sarkaria Commission suggested that a pre-poll alliance should be given higher priority over the single largest party during government formation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

13.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):

It was established based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
The Bureau is responsible for the implementation of the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) in India.
The "Prison Statistics India" is an annual publication released by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment using data from NCRB.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

14.

Consider the following statements regarding the PM SHRI Scheme:

PM SHRI schools are developed in line with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
The scheme provides 100% central funding to all States and Union Territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

15.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Testing Agency (NTA) and the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024:

The National Testing Agency (NTA) was established as a statutory body under an Act of Parliament.
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 makes offences related to paper leaks and organized cheating non-bailable.
The NTA took over the responsibility of conducting examinations like NEET and JEE from CBSE in 2019.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

16.

Consider the following statements regarding the wage framework in India:

STATEMENT I: The concept of a 'Living Wage' is a statutory right extended to all citizens under the fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution.

STATEMENT II: A 'Fair Wage' represents an economic threshold that lies between the floor of a minimum wage and the ceiling of a living wage, and its upper limit is bounded by the financial capacity of the industry to pay.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

None

17.

With reference to the Ordinance-making power of the President under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

The President can promulgate an ordinance even when both Houses of Parliament are in session.
An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
An ordinance can amend the Constitution of India.
The maximum possible life of an ordinance can extend to about seven and a half months.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1 and 4 only

None

18.

With reference to Department-Related Standing Committees (DRSCs), consider the following statements:

DRSCs were first introduced in 1993.
A Union Minister can be a member of a DRSC related to his ministry.
The term of office of DRSC members does not exceed one year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

None

19.

With reference to the recent Supreme Court ruling on stray dogs and rabies, consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court allowed legally permissible euthanasia for rabid, incurably ill, or dangerous stray dogs.
Under the Animal Birth Control (ABC) Rules, 2023, stray dogs removed from hospitals and railway stations can be re-released into the same areas after sterilisation.
Rabies is a viral disease that becomes almost 100% fatal once clinical symptoms appear.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

None

20.

Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA):

UAPA imposes stringent conditions on granting bail to an accused person.
Courts cannot grant bail under UAPA even if there is an extraordinary delay in trial proceedings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

21.

With reference to the law of sedition in India, consider the following statements:

Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code was introduced in 1870 during British rule.
Under the Kedar Nath Singh case (1962), mere criticism of the government without incitement to violence amounts to sedition.
Sedition under Section 124A IPC was a cognizable and non-bailable offense.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

None

22.

With reference to the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin 2024, consider the following statements:

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in India declined significantly between 2014 and 2024.
Kerala recorded the highest Natural Growth Rate (NGR) among larger Indian states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

None

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